Air Law

What is the minimum age to hold a PPL?
1. 14 years
2. 17 years
3. 18 years
4. 21 years
A certificate of experience must be entered every ______ months in a pilots log book to keep the license valid.
1. 11 months
2. 12 months
3. 13 months
For how long is a certifcate of test valid?
1. 24 months
2. 12 months
3. 13 months
4. 6 months
How many hours spent as Pilot in Command (PIC) enables you to qualify for a certificate of experience in its stipulated time period?
1. 5 hours
2. 10 hours
3. 15 hours
In addition to the minimum amount of hours required to qualify for a certificate of experience, what also must be done in order to remain legal to fly?
1. Pass a check flight with an instructor
2. Fly two 40 nautical mile cross-country flights
3. Hold a valid medical certificate or declaration of health
4. Have an updated POH of the aircraft he has flown last
A microlight aircraft is defined as which of the following:
(Choose all correct answers)
1. 450kg maximum take-off weight
2. 50 litres maximum fuel capacity
3. maximum 2 persons on board
4. wing loading not exceeding 25kg / sq. metre
5. minimum sustainable flying speed no more than 65km/h
Which of the following is NOT allowed in a microlight aircraft:
1. Banking turns exceeding 45 degrees
2. Intentional stalls from level flight
3. Flying over a congested area above 1500 feet above the highest fixed object within 2000 feet and high enough to glide clear in the event of an engine failure
4. Flying at a speed less than 40 knots
After being inspected and check flown every 12 months, a microlight aircraft operating on a permit to fly must have a current:
1. permit of airworthiness
2. certificate of validity
3. release to service
4. CAA approved paint scheme
What must be done after a major structural component has been replaced following a recommendation at the annual inspection?
1. Component must be inspected by an approved inspector, details and inspector's signature must be enetered in the engine airframe log book
2. First the CAA then the BMAA must be informed
3. First the BMAA then the CAA must be informed
4. A valid certificate of maintenance must be issued
5. Nothing. Replacing the part after recommendation to do so is sufficient.
Under whose responsibility do the correct registration details fall under?
1. The owner
2. The pilot
3. The CAA
4. The BMAA
5. The aircraft manufacturer
What is the minimum visibility for flight outside controlled airspace, below 3000 feet by a PPL holder flying solo?
1. 3km
2. 5km
3. 10km
4. 8km
What is the minimum visibility for flight outside controlled airspace, below 3000 feet by a PPL holder carrying a passenger?
1. 3km
2. 5km
3. 10km
4. 8km
What is the minimum visibility for flight outside controlled airspace, above 3000 feet by a PPL holder carrying a passenger?
1. 3 km
2. 5 km
3. 10 km
4. 8 km
After an illness period of _____ a medical certificate is suspended.
1. 20 days
2. 15 days
3. 30 days
4. 60 days
5. 90 days
When intending to fly further than 10nm off the coast:
1. Pilots must file a flight plan
2. Pilots are advised to file a flight plan
3. The aircraft must be equipped with a working radio
4. This is illegal, since microlights are not allowed under any circumstances to operate further than 10nm off the coast.
5. Aircraft must be fitted with a GPS system
When must a flight plan be filled?
1. Flying to / from the UK and crossing an international FIR boundary
2. Flying over mountains
3. Flying more than 10nm off the coast
4. A flight plan must always be filled regardless of the circumstances
You are under a flight plan and you land at a different aerodrome to the one specified in your flight plan. Within how long must you notify the ATSU at the specified destination ?
1. 30 minutes of the ETA
2. 20 minutes of the ETA
3. 45 minutes of the ETA
4. 60 minutes of the ETA
5. There is no need to inform the ATSU; national radar coverage will instantly identify where you landed at all times.
If you have been invited to join in a flying display over a congregation of not more than 500 people, you:
1. Need a display authorisation for the intended flight from the CAA
2. Must have in your posession a written request from the organiser
3. Should have considered any relevant advice available from the CAA
4. Cannot do this as flying over a congregation of more than 300 people is illegal.
5. Must have a working GPS system installed in the aircraft.
Rule 5 states that an aircraft should not fly closer than _______ from any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure.
1. 500 feet
2. 500 metres
3. 5 nm
4. 1500 feet
An aircraft must not fly over or within ______ feet of an open air gathering of more than 1000 people
1. 1000 feet
2. 500 feet
3. 3000 feet
4. 2000 feet
5. 100 feet
When two aircraft are converging:
1. The one that has the other on its left shall give way
2. The faster aircraft shall give way
3. The one that has the other on its right shall give way
4. The smaller aircraft shall give way
When two aircraft are approaching head-on:
1. Both should turn right
2. Both should turn left
3. The first aircraft to notice the other should dive and the other should climb
4. The first aircraft to notice the other should climb and the other should dive
When overtaking:
1. The overtaking aircraft should climb above the other
2. The overtkaing aircraft should keep the other on its right
3. The overtkaing aircraft should keep the other on its left
4. If the overtaking aircraft is the smaller aircraft it should keep the other to its right, otherwise if it is larger it should keep the other to its left
When following a line feature:
1. You should keep the feature to the left
2. You should keep the feature to the right
3. You should fly directly above the feature
Where take-offs and landings are not confined to a runway:
1. You must land to the left of any other aircraft whih has landed or is about to take-off.
2. You must land to the right of any other aircraft which has landed or is about to take-off.
3. All landings and take-offs should be made on the right hand side of the field.
What is the correct order for right of way on the ground:
i. Taxying aircraft
ii. Vehicles
iii. Vehicles towing aircraft
1. ii, i, iii
2. iii, i, ii
3. i, ii, iii
4. iii, ii, i
When overtaking another aircraft on the ground:
1. Overtake on the left
2. Overtake on the right
3. Pass on whatever side is clearest
An altimeter set to QNH is said to be reading:
1. Altitude
2. Height
3. Flight levels
4. A false reading
Regional QNH is the _____ forecast pressure for that region.
1. Highest
2. Lowest
3. Average
The altimeter will be set to _____ to read flight levels.
1. QNH
2. QFE
3. 1013.2 mb
4. 1013.7 mb
The altimeter should be set to ________ when flying beneath a TMA or CTA below transition altitude.
1. the QNH of an aerdrome situated beneath that area
2. regional QNH
3. the QFE of an aerodrome situated beneath that area
What is the correct altimeter setting for final approach?
1. QFE
2. QNH
3. Regional QNH
4. Transition altitude
Transition altitude is _______ with certain exceptions.
1. 4000 feet
2. 3000 feet
3. 2000 feet
4. 5000 feet
5. 9000 feet
What is the correct flight level for a magnetic track of 90 degrees?
1. FL 30
2. FL 35
3. FL 40
What is the correct flight level for a true track of 268 degrees with a magnetic variation of 5 degres west?
1. FL 35
2. FL 40
3. FL 45
When can an aircraft enter an ATZ?
1. Only with the permission from the ATC, AFIS, or A/G unit for that aerdrome by radio
2. At any time provided a good lookout is maintained
3. Only with the permission from the ATC, AFIS, or A/G unit for that aerdrome by radio or telephone
To fly within a MATZ:
1. You are advised to contact the associated ATC unit for zone penetration
2. You mut intact the assiciated ATC unit for zone penetration
3. You must not fly within a MATZ
The following is not controlled airspace:
1. Class A
2. Class D
3. Class G
What is an airway?
1. a control area
2. a control zone
3. open FIR
What is the upper limit of operations at a free fall parachuting site?
1. 2000 feet
2. 5000 feet
3. FL 150
A civil aerodrome identification beacon:
1. Flashes a two letter morse group in red every 15 seconds
2. Flashes a two letter morse group in green every 15 seconds
3. Flashes a two letter morse group in green every 12 seconds
What does a steady red light directed to an aircraft in flight mean?
1. Do not land, wait for permission
2. Do not land, aerodrome not available for landing
3. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
4. Land immediately
What do green flashes of light directed to an aircraft on the ground mean?
1. You may take off
2. Move off the runway
3. You may move on the manoevring area or apron
What do red flashes of light directed to an aircraft in flight mean?
1. Do not land, aerodrome not available for landing
2. Do not land, wait for permission
3. Land immediately without delay
4. You may take off
White flashes directed to an aircraft on the ground mean:
1. Move clear of the landing area
2. You may ove onto the manoevring area or apron
3. Return to start point on the aerodrome
What does the search and rescue signal V mean?
1. Require medical assistance
2. Require assistance
3. Gone in this direction
4. Assistance no longer required
What does A.I.C. stand for?
1. Aviation Insurance Convention
2. Assistant Instructor Course
3. Aeronautical Information Circular
4. Aircraft Inspection Curriculum
5. Aviators' International Consortium
What does NOTAM stand for?
1. Notices to airmen
2. No taxying after midnight
3. Notices: aviation and marine
4. Not a microlight
What is a green AIC concerned with?
1. Changes to CAA charts
2. Safety
3. Administration
4. Security
What is a pink AIC concerned with?
1. Changes to CAA charts
2. Safety
3. Administration
4. Dress Code
What is a white AIC concerned with?
1. Changes to CAA charts
2. Safety
3. Administration
4. Security
When landing after another aircraft, when will wake vortex turbulence be at its greatest?
1. Wind is strong and blowing down the runway
2. Wind is very light and blowing down the runway
3. Wind is medium and across the runway
If you are landing behind another aircraft, what could you do to minimise the potential hazard of wake vortex?
1. Note the touch down point of the other aircraft and land well before it
2. Land as far as possible to one side of the runway
3. Note the touch down point of the other aircraft and land well beyond it
What is the recommended seperation for a light aircraft, including microlights, for landing behind a heavy aircraft? (over 160,000kg)
1. 4 minutes and 8nm
2. 3 minutes and 6nm
3. 5 minutes and 10nm
Choose one of the following which is a notifiable accident:
1. Aircraft blows over and is substantially damaged when taxying from the hangar to the fuel pump
2. Aircraft blows over and is substantially damaged when taxying to the runway for take off
3. Propellor explodes during take off
When a reportable accident occurs, it must be reported to:
1. The DOT Air Accident investigation branch and the BMAA
2. The CAA and the local police
3. The DOT Air Accident investigation branch and the local police
4. The BMAA only
What is the height band with the greatest concentration of low flying military traffic?
1. 250 to 500 fet AGL
2. 500 to 750 feet AGL
3. Ground level to 250 feet AGL
How wide is the stub of a MATZ? (it is 5nm long)
1. 2nm
2. 3nm
3. 4nm
4. 5nm
The top of an ATZ is:
1. 2000 feet aal
2. 3000 feet aal
3. 4000 fet agl
4. 5000 feet agl
What is the radio frequency for distress and diversion?
1. 999.5
2. 125.1
3. 121.5
4. 125.5
What does A.I.A.A. stand for?
1. Aeronautical Information and Accident Association
2. Accident investigation area authority
3. Area of intense aeronautical activity
4. Accident and Incidents Aviation Authority
What does L.A.R.S. stand for?
1. Lower airspace radar service
2. Luton area radar service
3. London Airport Rescue Service
4. Light Aviation Regulatory Section
Permanent obstructions over _____ are lit.
1. 500 feet
2. 300 feet
3. 220 feet
4. 137 feet
Up to what height may winch launched gliders carry cables?
1. 5000 feet
2. 3000 feet
3. 2000 feet
4. 200 feet
What is an area in which flight is prohibited called?
1. a danger area
2. a permanent avoidance zone
3. a prohibited area
4. Area 51
A special VFR clearance will only be issued for flight into certain _______
1. Airways
2. CTRs
3. CTAs
4. DMZs
The ANO definition of night is:
1. Half an hour before sunrise to half and hour after sunset
2. Sunset to sunrise
3. Half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise
4. When it is too dark to see an unlighted aircraft at 50 metres distance.
MAYDAY repeated 3 times is:
1. an urgency signal
2. a warning signal
3. a distress signal
PAN-PAN repeated 3 times is:
1. an urgency signal
2. a warning signal
3. a distress signal
What does an aerodrome marked as PPR mean?
1. Private pilots only should use the aerodrome
2. Prior permission is required to use the aerodrome
3. The ICAO code for the aerodrome is PPR
4. The runway is often used for drag racing during weekends and public holidays.
The usual airspace classification for purple airspace is:
1. A
2. B
3. F
4. N
Advance notice of purple airspace is given by _______
1. an R NOTAM
2. a mauve AIC
3. a temporary navigation warning
How long after the passage of a royal flight does the purple airspace exist?
1. 10 mins
2. 15 mins
3. 30 mins
4. 60 mins
You feel that your aircraft has been endangered by the proximity of another aircraft. What type of report should be made straight away by radio? (or by telephone after landing)
Within seven days a report should be confirmed on the CAA form for this.
1. Airmiss
2. Airprox
3. Airbash
4. Close Encounter
If you take a friend for a flight and the direct costs of the flight come up to 60 pounds:
1. Your friend can pay the 60 pounds as payment for you taking him flying
2. Your friend cannot contribute anything towards the cost of the flight
3. You can cost share 50/50 the direct costs of the flight, 30 pounds each in this case.
What radius does an ATZ with a runway length of more than 1850 metres have?
1. 2000 metres
2. 2 nm
3. 2.5nm
When is the ATZ of an aerodrome with an AFIS active?
1. Only during the notified hours of watch of the AFIS unit.
2. 24 hours
3. Day time only
4. Only when aircraft are landing or taking off.
Aerdrome information can be found in section ______ of the UK AIP.
1. RAC
2. FAL
3. AGA
4. AoA
What is the marking on a fuel bowser indicating that it contains 100LL avgas?
1. Black with whte bars
2. Red and yellow bars
3. Blue and red with a white bar between
4. A red circle on a yellow field.
What does the indication "24" on the end of a runway indicate?
1. True heading
2. Magnetic heading
3. Length of the runway in metres x10
4. Width of the runway is metres
What does ASR stand for?
1. Altimeter setting region
2. Aircraft search and rescue
3. Aerdrome security region
4. Affordable small runway
Where on the airfield should an altimeter be checked?
1. At the highest point
2. On the apron
3. Outside the control tower
4. Immediately after take off
Is it mandatory to obtain permission for VFR flight in class E airspace?
1. Yes
2. yes if it is notified, no if not
3. No
For how long must you keep your personal flying logbook?
1. 1 year from the date of the last entry
2. 2 years from the date of the last entry
3. 13 months from the dat of the last entry
4. For life
What is the minimum time that an engine/airframe log book must be kept?
1. 1 year from the date of the last entry
2. 2 years from the date of the last entry
3. Until the aircraft has been permanently withdrawn from use or it has been destroyed
4. 13 months from the date of the last entry
Which of the following is mandatory for flight above FL100?
1. An oxygen system
2. A transponder
3. An IMC or instrument rating
4. A GPS system
After completing your PPL course and sending of the license application, the CAA confirms receipt of the application. How soon can you exercise the privileges of your license?
1. Immediately
2. Only when in receipt of the license and you have signed it
3. After allowing 5 working days from this notification.
4. Not before 30 days of receving license.
How is a danger area which is always active during prescribed hours throughout the weekdays shown on the authroised danger chart?
1. Solid blue outline
2. Solid red outline
3. Pecked blue outline
An airway is _____ long
1. 10 nm
2. 15 nm
3. 20 nm
In a microlight aircraft you may smoke:
1. At any time other than take off and landing
2. At no time
3. At all times
4. At all times except take off where the engine is at full power and more likely to eject flammable fumes
What does a black letter C on a yellow background indicate?
1. A refreshment area where coffee is available
2. Parkin area designation letter
3. The position at which a pilot can report to ATC or other aerodrome authority
Entries in a log book are made:
1. In ink or indelible pencil
2. Red ink only
3. Blue ink only
The code D406/15 in relation to a UK danger area means that when active the danger area extends from:
1. The surface up to 15,000 feet AMSL
2. Fom 1000 feet AMSL to 5000 feet QNH
3. From the surface up to FL 15
When carrying out a standard overhead join, at which height should you initially overfly?
1. Not less than 2500 feet AAL
2. 2000 feet AAL
3. 1000 feet AAL
To operate an aircraft radio:
1. An RT license is required at all times
2. An RT license is required but an exemption allows student pilots to use it without one during training
3. No RT license is required for use in a microlight aircraft
Fitting a radio in a microlight aircraft:
1. Is not allowed
2. Only requires entry in the aircraft log
3. Is considered to be a minor modification and the appropriate procedures should be carried out
An RT license is valid:
1. For 13 months
2. For 5 years
3. For life
4. For 24 months
A drunk person:
1. Can only be carried as passenger
2. Can only be carried as pilot
3. Is not allowed on board a microlight aircraft

Air Law

Multiple-choice exercise